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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 02:37

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What melts your heart every time without fail?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why are there so many illegal Haitians in Ohio? They can't walk here. Democrats flew them here to cause chaos and crime in Ohio.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's your favorite stupid joke?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?